Month: July 2009

  • Question 166 - "Works of the Law" in the Ignatius Study Bible

    Question 166 - "Works of the Law" in the Ignatius Study Bible

     

    Dear Robert,

    I was reading in the Ignatius Catholic Study Bible, written by Curtis Mitch and Scott Hahn, about the “works of the law” issue, and was wondering if you could help me figure out what the truth of this matter is. On page 21, they say that St. Augustine understood “works of the law” to refer to the whole law of Moses (“moral, ceremonial or juridical commands”) but that St. Jerome said it referred only to the “ceremonial laws of Moses.” They then say that “both views are correct in their proper context: initial justification in Baptism takes place apart from any observance of the law whatever (Tit 3:4-7), whereas final justification at the Last Judgment takes place apart from the ceremonial works of the Law, but not apart from observing the moral commandments of the Law (Rom 2:13; Mt 19:16-19; 1 Cor 7:19; Jas 2:8-13).” Is this a correct understanding of the matter?

    Elmo A.

    R. Sungenis: Elmo, I’m afraid that the attempt by Mitch and Hahn to deal with the “works of the law” issue is symptomatic of a basic misunderstanding of the whole issue of justification, as well as a misunderstanding of how the Old Covenant relates to the New Covenant.

    First, I recently wrote to Dr. Hahn about this issue. I inquired of him (with a copy to a friend of his) as to the sources for his assertion that Jerome believed that “works of the law” referred only to the ceremonial law. He did not respond. The friend offered some possible sources, but when I investigated them and told them they did not support the assertion, he agreed, and the matter was not pursued any further. So, I have yet to be given the sources for the “Jerome” assertion, and unfortunately, Dr. Hahn has been touting Jerome for the last 15 years but without ever providing his readers with a citation to back up his claim. He had done the same with Irenaeus and Justin Martyr for a few years until I told him that he was taking their words out of context, since elsewhere they understood “works of law” as referring to the whole law of Moses. How the Ignatius Study Bible can, after all this time, appeal to Jerome as the sole source of the theory, and without a citation, seems to be very poor scholarship. The fact is, the Catholic Church, in her official arguments on Justification, never sided with the idea that “works of law” referred only to the ceremonial law. The Council of Trent didn’t take that argument, and neither did the 1994 Catholic Catechism. Both of them agree that “works” or “works of law” or “law” refers to the whole Mosaic law. I believe Mitch and Hahn keep ignoring this information because they are heavily influenced by the new hermeneutic of the Protestants N.T. Wright, James Dunn, and others in that mold of thinking.

    Second, it is fallacious, if not heretical, to argue that in “initial justification” no works are involved but that in “final justification” works are involved. Chapter 8 of Trent’s sixth session is clear that, even at Baptism, the individual is infused with faith, hope and love (i.e., faith and works) in order to fulfill the requirement of James 2 that faith without works is dead. Here are its words:

    “Hence man through Jesus Christ, into whom he is ingrafted, receive in the said justification together with the remission of sins all these [gifts] infused at the same time: faith, hope, and charity. For faith, unless hope and charity be added to it, neither unites one perfectly with Christ, nor makes him a living member of his body. For this reason it is most truly said that ‘faith without works is dead’ [James 2:17], and is of no profit [Canon 19], and ‘in Christ Jesus neither circumcision availeth anything, nor uncircumcision, but faith, which worketh by charity’ [Galatians 5:6; 6:15].”

    Now, the reason Mitch and Hahn would be prone to making a distinction between “initial justification” and “final justification” is because they have misunderstood how the Old Covenant relates to the New Covenant. Hahn’s mistake – the same mistake that he has been making for the last 15 years on this subject – is that he can’t figure out how it is, as Christians, we are to obey the moral law if St. Paul said that the moral law of Moses, the Ten Commandments, were abrogated. Hahn’s solution has been to make one of two distinctions: (1) say that St. Paul only abolished the ceremonial law but kept the moral law of Moses, or (2) say that there is a difference between “initial justification” and “final justification.” Since he had to admit from my previous polemics that solution #1 would not work, he then opted for solution #2 in the Ignatius Study Bible. But this only exposes a basic misunderstanding of the Old Covenant and its relationship to the New Covenant.

    The explanation is really very simple, and I’m very surprised that people of Hahn’s caliber cannot grasp it. The bottom line is this: we cannot split the Old Covenant into two parts, one part that is abolished (i.e., the ceremonial law) and one part that is still legally valid (i.e., the moral law). Legally speaking, either the whole thing stays or the whole thing goes. This is precisely what Paul argues in Gal 3:10-12, for if any part of the Mosaic law remains, it will condemn us.

    But we can’t understand this dimension of the argument unless we understand the LEGAL dimension of the issue. As a LEGAL entity, the entire Old Covenant is abolished. But as a PRACTICAL guide to life, the entire Old Covenant is very much alive and useful for us. That is, in the New Covenant we borrow many ethical and worship principles from the Old Covenant. We borrow the Ten Commandments (although the New Covenant alters them a little to fit the New Covenant gospel); we borrow from some of the civil laws (e.g., paying just wages), and we even borrow some of the ceremonial laws (e.g., setting aside one day to worship God, although we change this to Sunday as opposed to Saturday). But whatever we borrow and practice from the Old Covenant, it is not because the Old Covenant, in whole or in part, is itself still legally valid, but because the New Covenant has the authority to incorporate any principle from the Old Covenant it wishes if it finds it helpful for Christian living. In that way, the Old Covenant laws are under the legal jurisdiction of the New Covenant, not the Old Covenant. Hence, St. Paul could legally abolish the entire Mosaic law, but then take from the Mosaic law those moral, civil or ceremonial principles that he saw fit for the Christian community.

    This understanding of the Old Covenant will also require us to have a comparable understanding of the “works of the law.” We cannot explain “works of the law” as referring only to the ceremonial law but not the moral law. They refer to any work or any law from the Mosaic covenant. The fact is, if a man tries to use any of the Mosaic law as the means to justification, he will be condemned. For justification does not come by observing laws but by God’s grace. As St. Paul says in Romans 11:6: “But if it is by grace, it is no longer on the basis of works, otherwise grace is no longer grace.” Observing the law can only put one in the way of grace, as Trent says, but it cannot justify a man.

    The only reason that the ceremonial law seems to be the larger target of criticism in the New Testament is because the ceremonial law was the easier way for the Jews to make themselves appear righteous before others, thus St. Paul had to emphasize the ceremonial law as the chief obstacle to justification in his epistles. The moral law wasn’t as easy to obey, so few of the Jews had such a problem. In fact, they obeyed the ceremonial law at the same time they disobeyed the moral law (e.g. Romans 2:17-29). Nevertheless, St. Paul also says that the moral law cannot justify, just to cover all the bases (Rom 7:1-25; Gal 3:10-12).

    So, the long and short of it is this: we need to stop going to the Protestants for our understanding of Justification, whether it’s Joseph Fitzmyer’s attempt to say that justification is “forensic” in his New Jerome Biblical Commentary, or Scott Hahn’s attempt to say that “works of the law” refers only to the ceremonial law or that works are only required in “final justification.” These divergences arise because of a basic misunderstanding of how the Old Covenant relates to the New, which is the same problem we are having today when Catholic prelates deny supersessionism and teach that the Old Covenant is still valid for the Jews today.  One small error can send us off in a hundred different, but erroneous, directions.

    God be with you.

  • Question 165 – Predestination

    Question 165 – Predestination

     

    Do you have any plans to debate anyone on predestination?

     

    R. Sungenis: We've asked James White to debate the issue four times in the last six years and he has declined. If you have any one in mind, please let me know.

  • Question 164 - Does Acts 16:31 only require faith for salvation?

    Question 164 - Does Acts 16:31 only require faith for salvation?

     

    9) Bob, how do I answer a protestant who parrot fashion quotes Acts 16:31 about simply 'believing in Christ and you will be saved" as enough. I have explained that 'believe; in this verse actually means 'obey', and thus I explain that to obey Christ is to be Catholic. is this correct?

     

    Brenden

     

    R. Sungenis: You handle by taking the verse at face value. If it says “believe in the Lord Jesus to be saved” then he is saved because he believes in the Lord Jesus. The next question is, what constitutes “belief in the Lord Jesus.” The answer is, it is believing everything that the Lord Jesus is, did, and commands us to do. One can only know what “belief” really is if he reads the rest of the Bible to find out. One of those requirements is baptism, as Acts 16:33 says. So, right away, we see that “belief” requires an additional action – a belief that baptism washes away our sins. Hence, it is not just “belief,” per se, that saves us, but a particular kind of belief – a belief that believes everything about Jesus and what he wants us to do.

  • Question 163 - Is the chalice a Protestant influence?

    Question 163 - Is the chalice a Protestant influence?

     

    8) The Chalice at Communion is VatII protestant-influence isnt it? Can we refuse it Bob and just eat the Body of Christ? Is this ok?

     

    Brenden

     

    R. Sungenis: There may be many “Protestant-influenced” practices in the Novus Ordo, but this does not mean that they are not worthy of our practice and adoration. The bottom line is this: the wine in the chalice has been turned into the blood of Christ. Protestants, in their services, are still drinking grape juice, but we are drinking Christ’s blood. 

     

  • Question 162 - Does a host have DNA?

    Question 162 - Does a host have DNA?

     

    7) Bob, if a consecrated Host of Our Lord was examined, would it contain DNA, or blood..?

     

    Brenden

     

    R. Sungenis: No, the “substance,” as Thomas called it, is hidden by the “accidens.” No physical instrument can detect the substance.

  • Question 161 - Are we in the Apostasy? Is Christ coming back soon?

    6) Bob, what do you think of Catholic prophecy regarding the last days? Do you think we are in the days of antichrist? Have you heard of a supposed Catholic Monarch? Is our Church has heavily infiltrated by the illuminati and Masons as it was on the eve of VatII?

     

    Brenden

     

    R. Sungenis: I don’t know the identity of all the groups that may have infiltrated the Vatican, but I do know that Satan is the head of them all and is working very hard to get a foothold in the Vatican. As Paul VI himself said: “The smoke of Satan has entered the Church.” It is a constant struggle between the Holy Spirit protecting the Church from error and the devil trying to deceive prelates and parishioners into error.

     

    Regarding the last days, if the “Man of Sin” in 2 Thess 2:3-4 is a single person (which it appears to be from a face value exegesis of the passage), then we would have to wait until we see such a person ascend to such heights before we can expect Christ to return. But we may be near that period. The first thing that happens, according to vr. 3 is that “the apostasy comes.” The word “apostasy” is preceded by the Greek article, which means that it is a special or unique apostasy, never before seen on earth. This apostasy will happen in the Church, for “apostasy” is a falling away from the faith. This is not pagan Rome, for example, since the Roman gods were not Christian. This is a worldwide apostasy that affects the Church worldwide. It is the same as John’s description in the Apocalypse of Satan being loosed for a “little season,” the time when Satan goes out into the “four quarters of the earth to deceive” (cf. Ap 20:3, 7-8), which you can read about in my book on the Apocalypse. The reason this apostasy is unique is that it is taken over by the Man of Sin who exalts himself over “anything” related to God or religious worship. This has never happened before. In other words, this Man of Sin will accept no competition, and he will prove this by actually going into the “temple” and showing himself to be God, that God has been incarnated in him. In other words, he will claim to be the same thing that Jesus Christ is – God incarnated, and attempt to make Jesus into a fraud. He will convince the world of this lofty status by doing “miracles, signs and lying wonders” (2Thess 2:9), and he will not be a suffering Messiah as Jesus was, but a victorious miracle worker who squashes all the competition.

     

    I believe the word “temple” here is a double-entendre. In the first sense, it refers to the Church. John also speaks of the “temple” in Apoc 11, but there is an inner court and outer court to the temple. The outer court is where the Church has its thoroughfare with the world, where the Gospel is preached by the “two witnesses.” But when “the beast rises from the abyss” (which is the same as Satan being “loosed for a little season” in Apoc 20:3), the two witnesses are killed. Interestingly enough, they lie in Jerusalem (Apoc 11:8 - “where our Lord was crucified”), but Jerusalem is now called “Sodom and Egypt,” and this is due to the very apostasy that Paul delineates in 2 Thess 2:3. In other words, most of the Church has become like Sodom in perversion and Egypt in godlessness.

     

    After the two witnesses are killed, the people of the world rejoice for 3.5 days (a symbolic period of time of the apostasy). They are now being ruled by the “Man of Sin” (who is also the “beast” of Apoc 11:7). They are totally deceived by him because of his “miracles, signs and lying wonders” (see also Apoc 13:14).

     

    In the second sense, the “temple” could also be a reference to the physical temple in Jerusalem, the Jewish temple. As such, the “Man of Sin” will be a Jewish man who claims to be God incarnated and the real messiah, for it is the Jews who have rejected the first messiah, Jesus Christ, and are waiting for their own incarnated messiah. He will literally take his seat in this reconstructed temple and declare himself the messiah of the world. I believe the 1994 Catholic Catechism has partially picked up on this and thus refers to “the Antichrist, a pseudo-messianism,” although it does not commit itself to saying that the Antichrist is a single man but instead refers to it as “by which man glorifies himself in place of God.” Paul is rather clear, however, that this “Man of Sin” is one person, since he includes the Greek article in each case.

     

    He is also called “the son of perdition” (2Thess 2:3), which was a title originally given to Judas, the one apostle from Judah (while all the rest were from Galilee) who was possessed by the Satan and led Christ to be killed (cf. Jn 6:70; 17:12). This most likely means that the second “son of perdition” will also be a Jew who denies Christ and has him “killed.” But this time the “killing” is against the Christ’s Church as he causes a worldwide “apostasy” (i.e., the “two witnesses” of Christ are killed in Apoc 11:1-8).

     

    As for identifying the “Man of Sin,” Paul gives us a hint by implying a two stage process. The first stage is that the “apostasy comes.” The Greek means that it “comes” in such a way as we see the sun rising every day. We see the dawn, then the first part of the sun, and then the full disc in the sky. The apostasy will thus be a slowly but surely increasing phenomenon, and we could be in this very time today, but how long it could go on before the Man of Sin is revealed we do not know.

     

    But as the apostasy “comes,” Paul uses a different Greek word for the Man of Sin. The Man of Sin is already present in the apostasy, but he has not been “revealed” (Greek: apokalupsis). The most likely way he will be “revealed” (and the way we will know who he is) is when he “takes his seat in the temple” and declares himself the God-incarnated messiah. This is the ultimate apostasy, because no apostasy prior to this has featured the claim of a God-incarnated messiah to compete with Jesus Christ. He will do miracles just as Jesus did, and thus he will deceive most of the world. There is more I could tell you, but this will suffice for now.

  • Question 160 - Are there degrees of punishment in hell?

    Question 160 - Are there degrees of punishment in hell?

    5) Bob, are there 'levels' of mortal sin? For example, is it true there are different levels of hell, according to how bad you have been? Would adultery be classed as more grave than pre-marital sex for example? or murder more grave than missing Mass?

     

    Brenden

     

    R. Sungenis: Yes there are degrees of punishment in hell. The Church teaches that. I have a section on that in Not By Faith Alone. Generally, murder would be graver than missing Mass, but it depends on how the sins are committed. First degree, premeditated murder, is certainly more evil than missing Mass one Sunday. On the other hand, if a person makes a practice of missing Mass to the point that they no longer go because they don’t believe in God, then that may be much more serious than a second or third degree murder. Missing Mass once on a Sunday is not a grave crime unless one fulfills the three conditions for a mortal sin.

  • Question 159 – The pope and the Jews

    Question 159 – The pope and the Jews

    4) Bob, do you wish that a Pope would stand up to the jews and stop fawning over them like PJPII did, and to a certain extent Benedict? I am of course in total obedience to The Holy Fathers, they are validly and Divinely elected successors to St Peter. I just wish a no nonsense Pope would tell them to stop butchering palestinans, ditch their antichristic rabbinic religion (judaism) and convert to the True Faith, and apologise for The Talmud and anti Christian filth they produce in Hollywood, pornagraphy etc. What do you think??

    R. Sungenis: Yes, I wish that the pope would take a stronger stand with the Jews. But I think things are starting to change with Benedict XVI. Once he restored the 1962 prayer for the conversion of the Jews, the line in the sand was drawn. Many other things have happened since then. The Jews are getting the message that the Catholic Church is not going to change the Gospel so that the Jews can have their own covenant and mission with God. As such, the Catholic-Jewish “dialogue” is coming to an end. An article by the Jews more or less says as much. See it at: http://www.ou.org/public_affairs/article/orthodox_response_to_catholic_bishops_statement_on_mission_dialogue/

  • Question 158 – Can God change his mind?

    Question 158 – Can God change his mind?

    3) Bob, I have read accounts of Mary interceding to The Father to beg for a persons soul, and God has relented, 'refusing His mother nothing.' Firstly, do you believe these accounts, and secondly, does this indicate that God's will can change? i.e in these instances is He actually changing His mind? A similar concept is when Christ says He constantly intercedes on our behalf to His Father. Is this also 'changing God's mind'?

    Brenden

    R. Sungenis: Yes and no. In the metaphysical perspective, God knows the end from the beginning, so in that sense he doesn’t change his mind. But in the temporal sense, yes, God indeed changes his mind. If not, then we make God a liar, because we turn his threat of judgment and damnation into an empty threat.

  • Question 157 - Sister Faustina

    Question 157 - Sister Faustina

     

    2) On that subject, have you read The Way of Divine Love by Blessed Sister Faustina? Christ grants unbelievable graces to anyone who recites the Divine Mercy chaplet - He says "if a hardened sinner was to recite this chaplet even once, I will grant him My Mercy even though his sins be as scarlet". I just wondered what you thought of these books - Another thought provoking one is The End Times by Maria Valtorta.

     

    Brenden

     

    R. Sungenis: I haven’t read them so I cannot comment in depth. All I can say is, getting a hardened sinner to recite the chaplet, and do so with a sincere heart, is the hard part. Granting the mercy is the easy part. Hence, Sister Faustina’s recommendation is no different than what the Church has been preaching for 2000 years.